200-150 CCNA Data Center Free Practice Test

1. Which protocol is used for an immersive telepresence meeting?

2. What is a function of an endpoint?

3. Which room system can also function as a white board?

4. How is the Management Connector configured for Cisco Spark hybrid?

5. Which is included in an endpoint's registration request message sent to a SIP Server?

6. Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

7. What is the only WebEx product that can used in a CMR Cloud solution?

8. What do Enterprise Settings on Cisco Spark determine?

9. Which is a Cisco Spark Service Add-ons?

10. If a user of a SIP endpoint registered to an Expressway configured with only the vidoe.com domain physically dials. ''6501'', what alias is presented in the SIP invite message?

11. Which is a protocol used for sharing content?

12. Which Cisco WebEX product can be integrated in a CMR Cloud or CMR Hybrid deployment?

13. In which call processing stage can an alias be changed by a rule into another form?

14. Which Cisco Spark Bot type act as a text-based remote control for external services?

15. When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Script be saved/

16. Which Cisco WebEx products can support over 5000 attendees?

17. Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?

18. How many video endpoints can call into a CMR Cloud meeting?

19. Which type of API is used to configure settings on the Cisco Meeting Server?

20. What must be configured to set up a Directory connector for Cisco Spark Hybrid?

21. What protocol is used by TMS when a system cannot be contacted using SNMP?

22. What protocol does an Expressway use to send the call setup message in an H.323 call?

23. What is a unique feature of Expressway?

24. Which statement is correct regarding the assignment of endpoints to a subzone?

25. Which is used in both CMR Premises and CMR Hybrid solutions?

26. Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?

27. What is the maximum number of Expressways that can be clustered?

28. Which management solution works with endpoints registered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?

29. Where are license keys entered in TMS?

30. What H.323 functionality exists on the Cisco Meeting Server?

31. Which call solution supports messaging, meeting and calling?

32. TMS is a virtual application that relies on what Operating System?

33. Which premise-based conferencing solution works with Conductor, TMS and WebEx to create CMR Hybrid solutions?

34. Which deployment model is the bet solution for a simple installation with the most secure connection outside the protection network for Cisco Meeting Server?

35. Which is a configuration mode through Crisco Spark that allows Zero Touch Meetings (ZTM) and allows a user to utilize their enterprise phone as the audio or video terminal for Spark calls?

36. What is a primary purpose of the Traversal Subzone?

37. Which system users intelligent Audio to cancel out background noise?

38. In IPv6, which protocol enables a host to determine the link-layer address of the node that it wants to communicate within the local network, and to find out the link-layer address of the router through which it can access a node in an external network?

39. When a switch receives a frame which three variables are used to build the CAM table? (Choose three.)

40. Which two parameters are stored in an FCNS database? (Choose two) 0 FCID

41. Which type of cable do you use to connect two Cisco Nexus switches that are 50 km apart?

42. When the auto-MDIX feature is disabled, which two network configurations require a crossover cable? (Choose two)

43. Which two addresses are valid in the data link layer of the OSI reference model? (Choose two)

44. Which benefit does a VSAN provide?

45. You need to implement QoS on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch Which type of traffic must you classify so that no frames are dropped?

46. Which two protocols can you use for SAN storage that is accessed via low-latency, high-bandwidth networking'? (Choose two )

47. Refer to the exhibit.





Which protocol is used to map an IP address to a MAC address by broadcasting a request to the LAN?

48. Which statement describes the AAA accounting feature?

49. A switch receives a frame The destination MAC address is located on the same port where the switch received the frame Which action does the switch perform on the frame?

50. Which two descriptions of the WWNNs on a server that has two physical HBAs are true? (Choose two.)

51. Which two benefits of a single-initiator single-target zone are true? (Choose two.)

52. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop each zoning description on the left to the correct type of zoning on the right.

53. Which two actions can access lists be used for? (Choose two)

54. Which description of a multiple-initiator single-target zone is true?

55. In Fibre Channel networking, the FCID is composed of which set of identifiers?

56. Refer to the exhibit.





Which statement about the output from SW2 is true?

57. Which two characteristics of IPv6 link local addresses are true? (Choose two.)

58. On a Cisco Nexus switch, you need to configure an ACL that denies only SSH traffic from any source to host 10 68 68 68 Which command should you use?

59. How many Fibre Channel zone sets can be active at one time for any given VSAN?

60. Topic 1, Exam Set A



Refer to the exhibit.





Two Layer 2 Cisco Nexus switches are connected to application servers in a data center. Server A cannot communicate with servers that are in VLANs 3 and 4, but t can communicate with server B and C.

What is the cause of the problem?

61. Which two options describe Junctions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two)

62. Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)

63. Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two)

64. Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)

65. What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card?

66. What layer of the OSI Model provides the logical addressing that routers use for path determination?

67. Refer to the exhibit.





What type of network communication is depicted?

68. Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in campus backbones, and is capable of transmitting to a distance of 60 kilometers?

69. A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file.

Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number?

70. Instructions:

- THIS TASK DOES NOT REAUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.

- To access the multiple- choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.

- There are four multiple- choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button.

Scenario:

Customer is configuring FCoE and NPV in their Data Center on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches. Please go through the Topology and Exhibit 1 through 4 to answer the questions.

Topology:





Exhibit 1.





Exhibit 2.





Exhibit 3.





Exhibit 4.





Which statement regarding Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches is true?

71. Instructions:

- THIS TASK DOES NOT REAUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.

- To access the multiple- choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.

- There are four multiple- choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button.

Scenario: Customer is configuring FCoE and NPV in their Data Center on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches. Please go through the Topology and Exhibit 1 through 4 to answer the questions.

Topology:





Exhibit 1.





Exhibit 2.





Exhibit 3.





Exhibit 4.





Which statement Is true regarding configuring NPV mode?

72. Instructions:

- THIS TASK DOES NOT REAUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.

- To access the multiple- choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.

- There are four multiple- choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button.

Scenario: Customer is configuring FCoE and NPV in their Data Center on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches. Please go through the Topology and Exhibit 1 through 4 to answer the questions.

Topology:





Exhibit 1.





Exhibit 2.





Exhibit 3.





Exhibit 4.





What can you tell about server ports and their external Interfaces from the exhibits?

73. Which two statements are true regarding disruptive load balancing and regarding the configuration In this example? (Choose two).

74. A network design team has decided to use a standard protocol to consolidate the Ethernet and San data using the existing Nexus switches.

Which I/O technology can satisfy this need?

75. When command set will create an access control 1st on a Cisco Nexus switch to permit only unencrypted Web traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?

76. An administrator connected a new server to a Cisco MDS 9222i on Port FCL/20, but did not capture the world wide node name of the host bus adapter

Which command returns the needed information?

77. Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?

78. Which Cisco UCS power policy mode enables a configuration that can tolerate the loss of an input power circuit?

79. A network uses on pair of Layer 3 switches for core and distribution purposes.

Which design is this network using?

80. Which address type is used in IPv4 but is not used in IPv6?

81. Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)

82. What two technologies can be used to connect to storage arrays on a converged Ethernet IP network? (Choose two.)

83. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop each port description on the left to the port type on the right required to support it.

84. What describes how the 802.1Q protocol lactates the transmission of multiple Layer 2 networks on a single link?

85. An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.

Which two items can be configured during this setup process?

86. What native Fibre Channel technology facilitates connecting multiple Fibre devices behind a single FC address?

87. Which command should be used to determine which hosts are Fibre Channel targets?

88. At which layer of the OSI Model is TCP traffic encapsulated?

89. A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel.

Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.)

90. Which two hosts are part of subnet 172.16.160.0/20? (Choose two.)

91. Which protocol is supported when OSPFv2 is used as the routing protocol?

92. Refer to the exhibit.





Which type of network communication is depicted?

93. What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?

94. Which address and subnet combination is valid for a host assignment?

95. Which two statements about configuring VLANs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 platform are true? (Choose two.)

96. Which statement is true regarding FIP in FCoE enabled Storage Area Networks?.

97. A customer requires two separate physical pathways between multiple initiators and multiple targets.

Which technology meets this requirement on a single Cisco MDS9148 switch?

98. What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables?

99. Which situation will cause a switch to flood traffic out all of the ports on the switch?

100. Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

101. What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?

102. Which option includes the two devices that can be connected when a Cisco Fabric Extender Transceiver is used?

103. What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?

104. Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?

105. Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)

106. What are two physical components of the Cisco UCS B-Series server? (Choose two.)

107. What two actions can be taken to enable inter-VLAN communications in the data center? (Choose two.)

108. Which two options are file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)

109. Refer to the exhibit.





What two conclusions can be mode based upon the output? (Choose two.)

110. A SAN administrator recently added a new zone to the VSAN 2 zone set named zone set2, but the

server is still unable to access the shared storage.

Which command will resolve this issue?

111. Switch A has BPDU fitering configured on all active interfaces. A second switch, Switch B, is connected to Switch A.

Which two actions will Switch A take when Switch B is connected to it? (Choose two.)

112. What is the principle function of the data center core layer?

113. Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.10.110?

114. Refer to the exhibit.





NP uplink ports connected to the core NPIV switch do not come online and are stuck in an initializing state.

Which options is a cause for this behavior?

115. A network design team has mandated that IP-only routing protocols be used in the network.

Which two routing protocols will they want to use? (Choose two.)

116. An engineer implemented a new VSAN and examined the F-mode trunks connecting an upstream switch. The engineer noticed that the new VSAN is stuck in initializing.

Which two options explain why this is happening? (Choose two.)

117. An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated accordingly.

Which command should the engineer use?

118. Which two options are benefits of deploying FCoE beyond the access layer?